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#1 |
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Registered User
Join Date: Apr 2009
Location: Southern California
Posts: 23
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Could you all explain to me why Paramahansa Yogananda used the King James Version of the Bible? It's a difficult translation for me to read, but I know it is the basis for The Second Coming. In my visit to a particular SRF temple, I saw several KJV's lying about. I'm just wondering why this version was used by PY and is used by SRF today. Thanks!
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Forget the past. The lives of all men are dark with many shames. Everything in future will improve if you're making a spiritual effort now. ~ Swami Sri Yukteswarji |
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#2 |
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Registered User
Join Date: Apr 2009
Location: Southern California
Posts: 23
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Anyone? Bueller? Bueller?
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Forget the past. The lives of all men are dark with many shames. Everything in future will improve if you're making a spiritual effort now. ~ Swami Sri Yukteswarji |
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#3 |
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Registered User
Join Date: Mar 2006
Posts: 220
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He liked the poetic cadence of older English and knew that version was widely used in the United States and the west during that time period. There was enough information in it to relate to Yogic teachings. Also Sri Yukteswar used it as the basis of comparing Vedic precepts to common Christian theology which have hidden metaphysical meanings, unknown to the average Christian.
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#4 | |
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Registered User
Join Date: Sep 2009
Location: East
Posts: 13
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On page xxxi (footnote) of "The Second Coming” you find further explanation:
Quote:
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#5 |
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bhaja govindam
Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: South Carolina
Posts: 804
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All opinions expressed by rasa are for entertainment purposes only and may not reflect the viewpoints of the great Yogananda
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#6 |
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Registered User
Join Date: Sep 2009
Location: East
Posts: 13
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If you just look to Mattew 6,22.
King James Bible reads: "The light of the body is the eye: if therefore thine eye be single, thy whole body shall be full of light." This sentence is widely used by Yogananda to stress the importance of the single, the third eye. He would not be able to do that, had he used a newer edition of the bible. Today through all languages "single" is replaced by "clear", "healthy" "good", which is already a crude interpretation. In the Latin original, Vulgata, you find "simplex" which means "single".
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"I never dreamed before how deep are the teachings of Jesus. ...I see that they express the same truths as Patanjali's aphorisms, the condensed essence of Indian Yoga. Understood in this light, they can build a new age." P.Y. in Preface of TSCoC |
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#7 |
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Registered User
Join Date: Feb 2010
Posts: 28
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According to Strong's bible concordance the greek word was "haplous" which properly means "folded together, i.e. single."
"Folded together" is a significant definition as Master says that our eyes should be lifted when we concentrate on the spiritual eye to bring the energies that are flowing out of them together thus interiorizing them in the [single] spiritual eye. Other translations have come up with other words for lack of understanding what is truly meant. They take it as figurative so they try clarifying by using words such as "clear", "healthy", or "good". But when we translate the original Greek, Yogananda shows a clear understanding that this is more literal than figurative. Personally I use a the New International Version the most and have found little conflict between it and the KJV, but I do always keep a KJV along with Strong's Exhaustive Bible Concordance to aid in my study when questions such as this arise.
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